UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper I: answer key and question paper
The complete Series A answer key for the 2026 Civil Services Prelims General Studies Paper I, from UPSC's official provisional answer key, with the questions UPSC dropped, the subject-wise split and three questions explained in full.
Take the full 2026 paper under exam conditions. 100 questions, 2 hours, +2 / −0.66, exactly as UPSC set them. Then see your score, UPSC's key for every question and explanations for 10 of them, starting with your mistakes. Free with Google sign-in; Pro unlocks every explanation in English and தமிழ்.
Take the 2026 paperKey facts
| Exam | UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026, General Studies Paper I |
| Date | 24 May 2026 |
| Question booklet | Series A, 100 questions, 2 hours |
| Marking | +2 for a correct answer, −0.66 for a wrong one, 0 if left blank |
| Answer key | UPSC's official provisional answer key, checked against the file on upsc.gov.in |
| Dropped questions | Q64 |
| Maximum marks | 198 |
Answer key, Series A
UPSC dropped 1 question (Q64) from scoring, so the paper is marked out of 198. This is the provisional key UPSC published after the exam. When UPSC releases the final key we compare every answer, correct this page and re-score every attempt on 1way automatically if anything changes. Other booklet series (B, C, D) have the same questions in a different order, so match your booklet to Series A before checking answers.
- 1d
- 2a
- 3c
- 4b
- 5b
- 6a
- 7d
- 8a
- 9c
- 10c
- 11d
- 12a
- 13c
- 14b
- 15b
- 16b
- 17a
- 18d
- 19d
- 20b
- 21b
- 22b
- 23d
- 24d
- 25c
- 26c
- 27a
- 28d
- 29c
- 30b
- 31a
- 32b
- 33b
- 34b
- 35b
- 36b
- 37c
- 38b
- 39b
- 40c
- 41c
- 42b
- 43c
- 44b
- 45b
- 46c
- 47b
- 48b
- 49c
- 50b
- 51c
- 52a
- 53b
- 54d
- 55b
- 56b
- 57a
- 58c
- 59d
- 60a
- 61d
- 62d
- 63a
- 64Dropped
- 65d
- 66a
- 67b
- 68a
- 69c
- 70a
- 71b
- 72c
- 73d
- 74b
- 75c
- 76c
- 77b
- 78b
- 79c
- 80c
- 81c
- 82a
- 83c
- 84a
- 85a
- 86c
- 87a
- 88c
- 89c
- 90d
- 91a
- 92c
- 93b
- 94b
- 95a
- 96c
- 97c
- 98d
- 99a
- 100a
Subject-wise split
How the 100 questions divide across the syllabus, by 1way's classification of each question.
| Subject | Questions | Share |
|---|---|---|
| Economy | 17 | |
| Science & Technology | 14 | |
| History | 13 | |
| International Relations | 10 | |
| Environment | 9 | |
| Geography | 9 | |
| Art & Culture | 8 | |
| Current Affairs & Misc | 8 | |
| Polity | 8 | |
| Governance & Ethics | 4 |
Three questions from the 2026 paper, explained
Try each one before opening the answer. This is the kind of explanation you get after taking the paper: the reasoning behind every option, with sources.
In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy ?
- 1.By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
- 2.By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
- 3.By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.
Select the answer using the code given below :
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2
- (c)2 and 3
- (d)3 only
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 3 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Vizhinjam in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, is not a domestic-only cargo hub; it is India's first dedicated deep-water container transshipment port, built for international mainline vessels, and it was developed through a public-private partnership between the Kerala government and Adani Ports, with foreign shipping lines calling there. Statement 2 is wrong: it is a container transshipment terminal, not a cruise or heritage-shipping port. Statement 3 is correct: a natural depth of about 18-20 m close to shore and a location only about 10 nautical miles from the East-West international shipping route let it handle the largest container ships, reducing India's reliance on Colombo, Singapore and Salalah for transshipment and keeping handling revenue at home. It was commissioned by the Prime Minister on 2 May 2025. So only 3 is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ?
- 1.Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
- 2.Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
- 3.Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.
Select the answer using the code given below :
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: genetic medicines (gene therapy, gene editing and RNA-based drugs) act on the genetic cause of a disease. They add a working copy of a faulty gene, silence or correct it, or supply the instructions for a missing protein. Statement 2 is correct: the genetic cargo has to be delivered into cells, and the two main carriers are engineered viral vectors (such as adeno-associated virus and lentivirus) and lipid nanoparticles, which also carried the mRNA COVID-19 vaccines. Statement 3 is incorrect: these therapies target a specific gene, or even a single DNA letter; they do not rewrite a person's entire DNA sequence of about 3 billion base pairs. Statements 1 and 2 are correct, so the answer is (c).
The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?
- (a)Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
- (b)Providing support to Indian importers
- (c)Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
- (d)Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
The Hilton-Young Commission (Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance) recommended fixing the rupee at 1s 6d sterling instead of the pre-war 1s 4d, and the Currency Act of 1927 enacted it. A dearer rupee meant fewer rupees were needed to meet India's sterling payments in London, the Home Charges, pensions, interest on debt and remittances of profits, and it kept India's credit sound in the London market. That is (a). (b) is wrong: cheaper imports were a side-effect that mainly helped British exporters, not a stated aim. (c) is wrong: an overvalued rupee made Indian cotton and other exports costlier abroad, which is why Indian business leaders such as Purshotamdas Thakurdas opposed the ratio. (d) is wrong: guarding the rupee's gold value was not the motive for choosing this sterling ratio.
The other 97 questions are waiting. 100 questions, 2 hours, +2 / −0.66, exactly as UPSC set them. Then see your score, UPSC's key for every question and explanations for 10 of them, starting with your mistakes. Free with Google sign-in; Pro unlocks every explanation in English and தமிழ்.
Take the 2026 paperOther years
Every UPSC Prelims GS Paper I from 2016 to 2026, each with UPSC's official key. See all past papers.
- 2026Provisional key · out of 198
- 2025Final key · out of 200
- 2024Final key · out of 194
- 2023Final key · out of 198
- 2022Final key · out of 198
- 2021Final key · out of 198
- 2020Final key · out of 196
- 2019Final key · out of 200
- 2018Final key · out of 200
- 2017Final key · out of 200
- 2016Final key · out of 200